In  $[0, 1]$ Lagrange's mean value theorem is $ NOT$  applicable to

  • [IIT 2003]
  • A

    $f(x) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
      {\frac{1}{2} - x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,x < \frac{1}{2}} \\ 
      {{{\left( {\frac{1}{2} - x} \right)}^2},\,x \geqslant \frac{1}{2}} 
    \end{array}} \right.$

  • B

    $f(x) = \left\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
      {\frac{{\sin x}}{x}\,\,x \ne 0} \\ 
      {1,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,x = \frac{1}{2}} 
    \end{array}} \right.$

  • C

    $f(x) = x|x|$

  • D

    $f(x) = |x|$

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